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Given that the development of the neo-cortex was quite limited in homo-erectus, can we assume that the concept of piracy even existed? If we consider that pirates are defined by their ability and propensity to rape, pillage and plunder,..... we can only consider these as contraventions of behaviour as deviant if we refer to some code of morality. Given that morals lead to the development of ethical behaviour and the eventual establishment of law, did homo erectus even have a moral system of reference? Morals and ethics develop from a higher level of intellectual thought, considered to be only available to homo-sapien man, who has developed a rather large and impressive neo-cortex. If homo-erectus was incapable of intellectual thought and therefore the development of a moral code, can the rape, pillage and plunder by this species of human even be considered piracy? In effect, piracy may have been normal behaviour and therefore not deviant, and I assume piracy was not even part of the erectile nomenclature. I therefore conclude that piracy as we understand it today is a modern conception for deviant behaviour and is probably inapplicable to homo-erectus. Therefore I conclude that any living human who admires piracy and tries to elevate the status of such behaviour is probably functioning at the same level as homo-erectus.