I was interested to read liam Bartletts opinions in the paper today about the RBA not following up on recommended reform to these surcharges.
This is a topic that often gets me a little hot headed, and I think it's possibly because I don't fully understand it. So if somebody could enlighten me on the following point.
If I borrow from peter to pay Paul, how can Paul justify adding any kind of charge (surcharge/fee) onto that transaction?
IMO I have an agreement with peter about the terms of the loan and that's between him and I. Paul's got nothing to do with it from what I can see? The way I choose to pay him is up to me?

Whoops. Meant to post in shooting the breeze.